For your premise to be true, it would require that same single God to have two distinct and completely contradictory holy books (for the sake of simplicity) written in his name.
There is no interpretation. It either correct or it is not. Since they hold opposing views, they can't both be correct. Ergo, they cannot both be for the same God.
It would require nothing of the sort.
It would only require that two people interpreted the same instructions or words of god differently.
The way you speak sounds as if you havent read any of either book.
They are similar to each other as it can get, that goes for Jews too.
All are people of the book, some took some things more literal than others