What flaw in my logic? Is Income Tax not forceful theft? Is theft not a violation of my rights? If I the means to safely travel on the roads without violating someone's rights, do I not have the right to drive my vehicle on said roads?
Here's the flaw in your logic. The 16th Amendment made institutionalized theft a part of the Constitution. Theft through income tax is now, by definition, Constitutional.
If you drive the roads without following the rules we all created for the use of those roads, you lose your privelege to use those roads.