I see. I went and read some more and found the page where it says the officer requested the charges in the original report but the prosecution apparently declined and went with the traffic violation (which IMO was the right charge if any at all). That is of course a completely different topic then what this thread originally started out about (which imo was the confiscation of his firearms).
I think the original point of the OP is that his guns shouldn't have been confiscated and if so, I would agree with that.
So, if a LEO is arresting a person based upon probable cause that a felony has occurred and that a misdemeanor has been committed in his presence, what is he supposed to do with guns that person is carrying? Release them to his 15 year old son?
While the prosecutor's office may have decided not to file on certain charges, that certainly does not mean there was not probable cause to arrest. PC to arrest and the prosecution's burden of "beyond a reasonable doubt" are very different standards.
I also have not seen anywhere that they did not release his guns back to him once he sobered up. Can anyone point me to that info?
Best,
Joe